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UOP MGT 307 Final Exam Guide 5 latest

UOP MGT 307 Final Exam Guide 5 latest

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MGT 307 Final Exam Guide 5

 

 

1) __________ is a multidisciplinary field devoted to understanding individual and group behavior, interpersonal processes, and organizational dynamics.

   A.    

   B.    

workgroup analysis.

   C.    

performance management.

   D.    

organizational behavior.

2) Scientific methods models link _________________ – presumed causes, with _________________ – outcomes, of practical value and interest.

   A.    

specific variables, contingency variables.

   B.    

discovered variables, with undisclosed variables.

   C.    

proven variables, non-proven variables.

   D.    

independent variables, dependent variables.

3) From its scientific heritage, organizational behavior has developed all of the following EXCEPT:

   A.    

an interdisciplinary body of knowledge.

   B.    

contingency thinking.

   C.    

use of scientific methods.

   D.    

an emphasis on finding the “one best way” to complete a task.

4) In the context of the three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations, the level referred to as __________ can play a critical part in linking people together and can provide a powerful motivational mechanism for members of the culture.

   A.    

observable culture

   B.    

common culture

   C.    

implicit culture

   D.    

shared values

5) Three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations are __________.

   A.    

shared objectives, shared values, and shared mission.

   B.    

explicit culture, implicit culture, and common assumptions.

   C.    

observable culture, shared values, and common assumptions.

   D.    

implicit culture, shared values, and common experiences.

6) Managers can modify the __________ of culture, such as the language, stories, rites, rituals, and sagas.

   A.    

visible aspects

   B.    

oral aspects

   C.    

verbal aspects

   D.    

vocal aspects

7) According to the research conducted on the nature of managerial work, which of the following is false?

   A.    

managers work at fragmented and varied tasks.

   B.    

managers work with many communication media.

   C.    

managers work long hours.

   D.    

managers spend much time working alone.

8) Scientific methods models are simplified views of reality that try to identify major factors and forces underlying real-world phenomenon.

   A.    

True

   B.    

False

9) When it comes to ethics and morality, scholar Archie B. Carroll draws a distinction between __________.

   A.    

immoral managers, amoral managers and ethical managers

   B.    

amoral managers, ethical managers and moral managers

   C.    

immoral managers, ethical managers and unethical managers

   D.    

immoral managers, amoral managers and moral managers

10) __________ are important to spot since non-verbals can add insight into what is really being said in face-to-face communication.

   A.    

Mangled messages.

   B.    

Merged messages.

   C.    

Mixed messages.

   D.    

Perceptual distractions.

11) The difficulties with cross-cultural communication are perhaps most obvious with respect to __________.

   A.    

geographic differences

   B.    

lifestyle differences

   C.    

language differences

   D.    

religious differences

12) Which of the following statements about the role of language in cross-cultural communication is NOT correct?

   A.    

Members of low-context cultures are very explicit in using the spoken and written word.

   B.    

In high-context cultures, must of the message communicated must be inferred or interpreted from the context, which includes body language, the physical setting and past relationships.

   C.    

In low-context cultures, the message is rarely conveyed by the words someone uses, with greater emphasis on the “context” in which the words are spoken.

   D.    

Australia, Canada and the United States have low-context cultures.

13) Each of the following is a characteristic of high-performance teams EXCEPT:

   A.    

high-performance teams have strong core values.

   B.    

members of high-performance teams have the right mix of skills.

   C.    

high-performance teams turn a general sense of purpose into specific performance objectives.

   D.    

high-performance teams have members who focus on individual effort and excellence.

14) __________ typically work with a target completion date and disband once their purpose has been fulfilled.

   A.    

Teams that recommend things.

   B.    

Teams that review things.

   C.    

Teams that run things.

   D.    

Teams that study things.

15) __________ may exist at all levels of responsibility, from the individual work unit composed of a team leader and team members to the top management team composed of a CEO and other senior executives.

   A.    

Teams that review things.

   B.    

Teams that make or do things.

   C.    

Teams that run things.

   D.    

Teams that evaluate things.

16) Suppose that a manager responds to a disagreement between subordinates by saying: “I don’t want to get in the middle of your personal disputes.” This manager is using which conflict management style?

   A.    

avoidance

   B.    

unassertive

   C.    

authoritative command

   D.    

accommodation

17) Sheila is assertive and uncooperative in dealing with others during conflict. She goes against the wishes of others and uses her authority to gain compliance. Sheila uses which conflict management style?

   A.    

competition

   B.    

compromise

   C.    

collaboration

   D.    

accommodation

18) Ken is being cooperative but unassertive with his employees during a conflict situation. He tries to smooth over their differences but it only produces a false sense of harmony among them. Ken is using which conflict management style?

   A.    

accommodation

   B.    

compromise

   C.    

competition

   D.    

avoidance

19) Process theories focus on _________________.

   A.    

when a person will react to specific management styles.

   B.    

who will be a more appropriate manager for an employee.

   C.    

why a person decides to behave in a certain way relative to available rewards and work opportunities.

   D.    

how a person will respond to types of leadership direction.

20) Content theories attempt to explain work behaviors based on _______________.

   A.    

perceptions on-the-job.

   B.    

pathways to need satisfaction and the influence of blocked needs.

   C.    

the impact of individual ethics on business decisions.

   D.    

the relationship between values and attitudes.

21) In the context of motivation, persistence refers to __________.

   A.    

an individual’s choice when presented with a number of possible alternatives.

   B.    

the different needs that an individual is trying to satisfy.

   C.    

the amount of effort a person puts forth.

   D.    

the length of time a person sticks with a given action.

22) Unlocking the full potential of teams and teamwork rich in diversity is one of the great advantages of high-performance organizations.

   A.    

True

   B.    

False

23) Research indicates that diversity among team members rarely creates performance difficulties early in the team’s life or stage of development.

   A.    

True

   B.    

False

24) Which of the following statements about heterogeneous teams is not accurate?

   A.    

research indicates that diversity among team members rarely creates performance difficulties early in the team’s life or stage of development.

   B.    

unlocking the full potential of teams and teamwork rich in diversity is one of the great advantages of high-performance organizations.

   C.    

diversity offers a rich pool of information, talent, and varied perspectives that can help improve team problem solving and increase creativity.

   D.    

heterogeneous teams have members who are diverse in demography, experiences, life styles, and cultures, among other variables.

25) Job burnout manifests itself as a loss of interest in and satisfaction with a job due to stressful working conditions.

   A.    

True

   B.    

False

26) Employee assistance programs are designed to provide help to employees who are experiencing personal problems and the stress associated with them.

   A.    

True

   B.    

False

27) Stress is a potential source of both anxiety and frustration, which can harm the body’s physiological and psychological well-being over time.

   A.    

True

   B.    

False

28) In today’s modern organization the base for power and politics rests on a system of authority. Which of the following statements about legitimacy regarding power is NOT correct?

   A.    

in firms, the legitimacy of those at the top increasingly derives from their positions as representatives for various constituencies.

   B.    

senior managers may justify their lofty positions within organizations by separating themselves from stockholders.

   C.    

in other societies, “higher authority” does not have a bureaucratic or organizational reference but consists of those with moral authority such as tribal chiefs, religious leaders, etc.

   D.    

in U.S. firms, “higher authority” denotes those close to the top of the corporate pyramid.

29) Directives falling within the zone of indifference are __________.

   A.    

   B.    

subjected to severe scrutiny.

   C.    

   D.    

subjected to slight scrutiny.

30) Which one of the following statements does NOT provide an accurate description of Stanley Milgram’s experiments?

   A.    

the experimental results revealed that 35 percent of the subjects subjected the “learner” to the maximum level of shock and the remaining 65 percent refused to obey the experimenter at various intermediate points.

   B.    

the basic conclusion of Milgram’s studies is there is a tendency for individuals to comply with and be obedient to authority.

   C.    

experimental subjects were instructed to give what they believed were successively higher levels of electric shocks to people who missed the word pairs

   D.    

Milgram designed a series of experiments to determine the extent to which people obey the commands of an authority figure, even if they believe they are endangering the life of another person.

31) A high-performing team can be created by communicating high-performance standards, having members spend time together, creating a sense of urgency, making sure members have the right skills, and rewarding high performance.

   A.    

True

   B.    

False

32) A high-performing team can be created by ensuring that latest information is kept to a minimum and by giving negative feedback.

   A.    

True

   B.    

False

33) High-performance teams have strong core values that help guide their attitudes and behaviors in directions consistent with the team’s purpose.

   A.    

True

   B.    

False

34) Four of the CLT leadership dimensions are:

   A.    

charismatic/value based, systematic, future orientation, performance driven.

   B.    

implicit, explicit, specific, detailed.

   C.    

autonomous, participative, driven, focus-oriented.

   D.    

self-protective, autonomous, humane-oriented, team-oriented.

35) _________________ is often used in combination with vertical leadership.

   A.    

shared leadership

   B.    

individual leadership

   C.    

organizational goal setting

   D.    

power negotiation

36) All of the following statements about full-range leadership theory are true EXCEPT:

   A.    

C. FRLT is fast becoming the most commonly used leadership theory used by organizations.

   B.    

D. some scholars consider the FRLT as an approach that could serve as a general leadership model that would trim or eliminate the numerous models now emphasized today.

   C.    

B. the approach is built around revisions to Bass’ Multifactor Leadership Questionnaire.

   D.    

A. the theory currently consists of nine factors including five transformational, three transactional one non-transactional factor.

37) Large systems tend to be susceptible to the boiled frog phenomenon, wherein managers fail to monitor their environments, recognize the important trends, or sense the need for change, and consequently their organizations slowly lose their competitive edge.

   A.    

True

   B.    

False

38) Large systems tend to be susceptible to the __________, wherein managers fail to monitor their environments, recognize the important trends, or sense the need for change, and consequently their organizations slowly lose their competitive edge.

   A.    

impatience trap

   B.    

immobility trap

   C.    

proactive phenomenon

   D.    

boiled frog phenomenon

39) The obvious organizational design response to uncertainty and volatility is to opt for a more __________ form.

   A.    

mechanistic

   B.    

organic

   C.    

centralized

   D.    

bureaucratic

 

 

 

UOP MGT 307 Final Exam Guide 4 latest

UOP MGT 307 Final Exam Guide 4 latest

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MGT 307 Final Exam Guide 4

 

1) Organizational behavior goals include all of the following EXCEPT:

A.         improve the quality of overall work life.

B.         improve the level of organizational profits.

C.         improve the performance of organizations.

D.         improve the performance of people.

 

 

2) __________ is a multidisciplinary field devoted to understanding individual and group behavior, interpersonal processes, and organizational dynamics.

A. performance management.

B. workgroup analysis.

C. motivation.

D.     organizational behavior.

 

 

3) Organizational behavior is an interdisciplinary body of knowledge with strong ties to all of the following disciplines EXCEPT:

A.         sociology.

B.         physics.

C.         anthropology.

D.         psychology.

 

 

4) Which of the following statements about the management of organizational culture is NOT correct?

A.         corporate culture can be managed by using organizational development techniques to modify specific elements of the culture that address both external adaptation and internal integration.

B.         corporate culture can be managed by directly modifying the observable culture, shared values, and common assumptions that deal with issues of external adaptation.

C.         dictate rules from the top of the organization.

D.         good managers are able to help build resilient cultures in situations where the features of strong cultures are absent.

 

 

5) In the context of the three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations, the level referred to as __________ can play a critical part in linking people together and can provide a powerful motivational mechanism for members of the culture.

A.         implicit culture

B.         observable culture

C.         common culture

D.         shared values

 

 

6) Three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations are __________.

A.         observable culture, shared values, and common assumptions.

B.        shared objectives, shared values, and shared mission.

C.         explicit culture, implicit culture, and common assumptions.

D.         implicit culture, shared values, and common experiences.

 

 

7) A person who is a __________ assumes a unique responsibility for work that is accomplished largely through the efforts of other people.

A.         change agent

B.         human resources director

C.         manager or team leader

D.         team member

 

 

8) Henry Mintzberg identified a set of roles that managers perform. These roles are grouped into which of the following three categories?

A.         interpersonal, informational, and decisional.

B.         strategic, informational, and political.

C.         supervisory, authoritarian, and decisional.

D.        interpersonal, strategic, and decisional.

 

 

9) Scientific methods models are simplified views of reality that try to identify major factors and forces underlying real-world phenomenon.

A.         False

B.         True

 

10) The difficulties with cross-cultural communication are perhaps most obvious with respect to __________.

A.         religious differences

B.         language differences

C.         lifestyle differences

D.         geographic differences

 

 

11) __________ are important to spot since non-verbals can add insight into what is really being said in face-to-face communication.

A.         Perceptual distractions.

B.         Mixed messages.

C.         Merged messages.

D.         Mangled messages.

 

 

12) Which of the following statements about cross-cultural communication is NOT accurate?

gestures mean basically the same thing in various cultures of the world.

ethnocentrism can easily create communication problems among people of diverse backgrounds.

people must always exercise caution when communicating with people of different national cultures.

people must always exercise caution when communicating with people of different geographical or ethnic groupings within one country.

 

 

13) Each of the following is a characteristic of high-performance teams EXCEPT:

A.         high-performance teams have members who focus on individual effort and excellence.

B.         high-performance teams turn a general sense of purpose into specific performance objectives.

C.         members of high-performance teams have the right mix of skills.

D.         high-performance teams have strong core values.

 

 

14) __________ may exist at all levels of responsibility, from the individual work unit composed of a team leader and team members to the top management team composed of a CEO and other senior executives.

A.         teams that evaluate things.

B.         teams that run things.

C.         teams that review things.

D.         teams that make or do things.

 

 

15) __________ typically work with a target completion date and disband once their purpose has been fulfilled.

A.         teams that study things.

B.         teams that run things.

C.         teams that recommend things.

D.         teams that review things.

 

 

16) The conflict management style of __________ involves being both cooperative and assertive. This style is characterized by trying to fully satisfy everyone’s concerns by working through differences and finding and solving problems so that everyone gains.

A.         compromise

B.       accommodation

C.        avoidance

D.         collaboration

 

 

17) Sheila is assertive and uncooperative in dealing with others during conflict. She goes against the wishes of others and uses her authority to gain compliance. Sheila uses which conflict management style?

A.        accommodation

B.         collaboration

C.         competition

D.         compromise

 

 

18) Whenever he is involved in a disagreement, Harry tries to partially satisfy both his concerns and the other party’s concerns through bargaining and appropriate trade-offs. Harry uses which conflict management style?

A.         compromise

B.         accommodation

C.         avoidance

D.         collaboration

 

 

19) Which of the following is the correct order of Maslow’s needs from the lowest (lower-order need) to the highest (higher-order need)?

 

 

20) In the context of motivation, direction refers to __________.

 

 

21) Content theories attempt to explain work behaviors based on _______________.

 

 

22) Research indicates that diversity among team members rarely creates performance difficulties early in the team’s life or stage of development.

A.         True

B.         False

 

 

23) Diversity offers a rich pool of information, talent, and varied perspectives that can help improve team problem solving and increase creativity.

A.         True

B.         False

 

 

24) Even though homogeneous teams may struggle in the short run to resolve issues, they are also likely to develop enhanced performance potential once things are worked out.

A.         True

B.         False

 

25) Job burnout manifests itself as a loss of interest in and satisfaction with a job due to stressful working conditions.

A.         True

B.       False

 

 

26) Stress is a state of tension experienced by individuals facing extraordinary demands, constraints, or opportunities.

A.         True

B.         False

 

 

27) Employee assistance programs are designed to provide help to employees who are experiencing personal problems and the stress associated with them.

A.         True

B.       False

 

 

28) Directives falling within the zone of indifference are __________.

 

 

29) In today’s modern organization the base for power and politics rests on a system of authority. Which of the following statements about legitimacy regarding power is NOT correct?

 

 

 

30) Which one of the following statements does NOT provide an accurate description of Stanley Milgram’s experiments?

 

 

31) A high-performing team can be created by communicating high-performance standards, having members spend time together, creating a sense of urgency, making sure members have the right skills, and rewarding high performance.

A.         True

B.         False

 

 

32) A high-performing team can be created by finding ways to create early successes, establishing clear rules for team behavior, setting the tone in the first team meeting, and, as a leader, modeling expected behaviors.

A.         True

B.         False

 

 

33) High-performance teams have strong core values that help guide their attitudes and behaviors in directions consistent with the team’s purpose.

A.        True

B.         False

 

 

34) Four of the CLT leadership dimensions are:

 

 

 

35) All of the following statements about full-range leadership theory are true EXCEPT:

.

 

 

36) Often self-leadership activities are divided into these three broad categories:

 

37) One of the foremost trends in management involves using information technology to streamline operations and reduce staff in order to lower costs and raise productivity.

A.         False

B.         True

 

 

38) Large systems tend to be susceptible to the boiled frog phenomenon, wherein managers fail to monitor their environments, recognize the important trends, or sense the need for change, and consequently their organizations slowly lose their competitive edge.

 

 

 

39) The __________ and the __________ are important ways in which firms learn to co-evolve by altering their environments.

 

 

UOP MGT 307 Final Exam Guide 3 latest

UOP MGT 307 Final Exam Guide 3 latest

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http://www.assignmentclick.com/mgt-307-uop/mgt-307-final-exam-guide-3

 

 

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MGT 307 Final Exam Guide 3

 

1) From its scientific heritage, organizational behavior has developed all of the following EXCEPT:

A. use of scientific methods.

B. contingency thinking.

C. an interdisciplinary body of knowledge.

D. an emphasis on finding the “one best way” to complete a task.

2) __________ is a multidisciplinary field devoted to understanding individual and group behavior, interpersonal processes, and

organizational dynamics.

A. performance management.

B. workgroup analysis.

C. motivation.

D. organizational behavior.

3) Organizational behavior is an interdisciplinary body of knowledge with strong ties to all of the following disciplines EXCEPT:

A. sociology.

B. anthropology.

C. physics.

D. psychology.

4) Organizations are encouraged to develop a dominant and coherent set of __________. Although every member may not agree with

them, all members will know they are important.

A. common perceptions

B. shared values

C. implicit needs

D. observable attitudes

5) Three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations are __________.

A. observable culture, shared values, and common assumptions.

B. explicit culture, implicit culture, and common assumptions.

C. shared objectives, shared values, and shared mission.

D. implicit culture, shared values, and common experiences.

6) Managers can modify the __________ of culture, such as the language, stories, rites, rituals, and sagas.

A. verbal aspects

B. oral aspects

C. visible aspects

D. vocal aspects

7) Scientific methods models are simplified views of reality that try to identify major factors and forces underlying real-world phenomenon.

A. False

B. True

8) Common forms of unintentional ethics lapses that individuals should guard against include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. favoring others who can benefit someone.

B. promoting people who excel in their respective positions.

C. claiming too much personal credit for one’s performance contributions.

D. prejudice that derives from unconscious stereotypes and attitudes.

9) When it comes to ethics and morality, scholar Archie B. Carroll draws a distinction between __________.

A. immoral managers, amoral managers and ethical managers

B. amoral managers, ethical managers and moral managers

C. immoral managers, ethical managers and unethical managers

D. immoral managers, amoral managers and moral managers

10) The difficulties with cross-cultural communication are perhaps most obvious with respect to __________.

A. geographic differences

B. lifestyle differences

C. language differences

D. religious differences

11) There are six sources of noise that are common to most interpersonal exchanges. These six sources are __________.

A. semantic problems, proximity problems, mixed messages, cultural differences, absence of planning, and status effects.

B. tangible distractions, people problems, inconsistent messages, cultural differences, absence of prior planning, and absence of feedback.

C. cultural differences, physical distractions, semantic problems, mixed messages, absence of feedback, and status effects.

D. mixed messages, cultural differences, absence of feedback, proximity problems, absence of commitment to effective communication, and

status effects.

12) Which of the following statements about the role of language in cross-cultural communication is NOT correct?

A. Members of low-context cultures are very explicit in using the spoken and written word.

B. In high-context cultures, must of the message communicated must be inferred or interpreted from the context, which includes body

language, the physical setting and past relationships.

C. In low-context cultures, the message is rarely conveyed by the words someone uses, with greater emphasis on the “context” in which the

words are spoken.

D. Australia, Canada and the United States have low-context cultures.

13) Members of __________ must have good long-term working relationships with one another, solid operating systems, and the external

support needed to achieve effectiveness over a sustained period of time.

A. teams that plan things.

B. teams that review things.

C. teams that reengineer things.

D. teams that make or do things.

14) __________ may exist at all levels of responsibility, from the individual work unit composed of a team leader and team members to the

top management team composed of a CEO and other senior executives.

A. Teams that review things.

B. Teams that make or do things.

C. Teams that run things.

D. Teams that evaluate things.

15) __________ typically work with a target completion date and disband once their purpose has been fulfilled.

A. Teams that recommend things.

B. Teams that review things.

C. Teams that run things.

D. Teams that study things.

16) Whenever he is involved in a disagreement, Harry tries to partially satisfy both his concerns and the other party’s concerns through

bargaining and appropriate trade-offs. Harry uses which conflict management style?

A. avoidance

B. collaboration

C. accommodation

D. compromise

17) Sheila is assertive and uncooperative in dealing with others during conflict. She goes against the wishes of others and uses her

authority to gain compliance. Sheila uses which conflict management style?

A. competition

B. compromise

C. collaboration

D. accommodation

18) Ken is being cooperative but unassertive with his employees during a conflict situation. He tries to smooth over their differences but it

only produces a false sense of harmony among them. Ken is using which conflict management style?

A. avoidance

B. compromise

C. competition

D. accommodation

19) In the context of motivation, level refers to __________.

A. the different needs that an individual is trying to satisfy.

B. the amount of effort a person puts forth.

C. the length of time a person sticks with a given action.

D. the consequences of an individual’s behavior.

20) Content theories attempt to explain work behaviors based on _______________.

A. perceptions on-the-job.

B. the impact of individual ethics on business decisions.

C. the relationship between values and attitudes.

D. pathways to need satisfaction and the influence of blocked needs.

21) In the context of motivation, persistence refers to __________.

A. an individual’s choice when presented with a number of possible alternatives.

B. the amount of effort a person puts forth.

C. the length of time a person sticks with a given action.

D. the different needs that an individual is trying to satisfy.

22) Even though homogeneous teams may struggle in the short run to resolve issues, they are also likely to develop enhanced performance

potential once things are worked out.

A. True

B. False

23) In general, chances for long-term group success are better when the group input foundations – tasks; goals, rewards, and resources;

technology; membership diversity; and group size – are stronger.

A. True

B. False

24) Research indicates that diversity among team members rarely creates performance difficulties early in the team’s life or stage of

development.

A. True

B. False

25) Eustress has a negative impact on both attitudes and performance.

A. True

B. False

26) Wellness involves maintaining physical and mental health to better deal with stress when it occurs.

A. True

B. False

27) Stress is a state of tension experienced by individuals facing extraordinary demands, constraints, or opportunities.

A. True

B. False

28) Milgram designed experiments to determine the extent to which people __________.

A. are willing to use coercive power to gain influence.

B. obey the commands of an authority figure.

C. learn from personal failures.

D. are willing to learn latest things as a means of gaining expert power.

29) Which one of the following statements does NOT provide an accurate description of Stanley Milgram’s experiments?

A. the experimental results revealed that 35 percent of the subjects subjected the “learner” to the maximum level of shock and the

remaining 65 percent refused to obey the experimenter at various intermediate points.

B. experimental subjects were instructed to give what they believed were successively higher levels of electric shocks to people who missed

the word pairs

C. Milgram designed a series of experiments to determine the extent to which people obey the commands of an authority figure, even if

they believe they are endangering the life of another person.

D. the basic conclusion of Milgram’s studies is there is a tendency for individuals to comply with and be obedient to authority.

30) Which of the following statements about power and organizational politics is NOT correct?

A. power and politics always exist in organizations.

B. managers derive their power from personal and organizational sources.

C. power and politics represent the seamy side of management, since organizations are not democracies composed of individuals with

equal influence.

D. few instances exist where individual and organizational interests are compatible.

31) High-performance teams have strong core values that help guide their attitudes and behaviors in directions consistent with the team’s

purpose.

A. True

B. False

32) High-performance teams have special characteristics that allow them to excel at teamwork and achieve special performance

advantages.

A. True

B. False

33) A high-performing team can be created by finding ways to create early successes, establishing clear rules for team behavior, setting the

tone in the first team meeting, and, as a leader, modeling expected behaviors.

A. True

B. False

34) _________________ is often used in combination with vertical leadership.

A. shared leadership

B. organizational goal setting

C. power negotiation

D. individual leadership

35) All of the following statements about full-range leadership theory are true EXCEPT:

A. C. FRLT is fast becoming the most commonly used leadership theory used by organizations.

B. B. the approach is built around revisions to Bass’ Multifactor Leadership Questionnaire.

C. A. the theory currently consists of nine factors including five transformational, three transactional one non-transactional factor.

D. D. some scholars consider the FRLT as an approach that could serve as a general leadership model that would trim or eliminate the

numerous models now emphasized today.

36) Four of the CLT leadership dimensions are:

A. charismatic/value based, systematic, future orientation, performance driven.

B. autonomous, participative, driven, focus-oriented.

C. self-protective, autonomous, humane-oriented, team-oriented.

D. implicit, explicit, specific, detailed.

37) The __________ and the __________ are important ways in which firms learn to co-evolve by altering their environments.

A. management of networks… influence of governments

B. use of corporate philanthropy… influence of governments

C. management of networks…development of alliances

D. influence of governments…development of alliances

38) Large systems tend to be susceptible to the __________, wherein managers fail to monitor their environments, recognize the important

trends, or sense the need for change, and consequently their organizations slowly lose their competitive edge.

A. impatience trap

B. boiled frog phenomenon

C. proactive phenomenon

D. immobility trap

39) The obvious organizational design response to uncertainty and volatility is to opt for a more __________ form.

A. mechanistic

B. bureaucratic

C. centralized

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MGT 307 Final Exam Guide 2

 

1) From its scientific heritage, organizational behavior has developed all of the following EXCEPT:

   A.   use of scientific methods.

   B.   an emphasis on finding the “one best way” to complete a task.

   C.   an interdisciplinary body of knowledge.

   D. contingency thinking.

  

2) __________ is a multidisciplinary field devoted to understanding individual and group behavior, interpersonal processes, and organizational dynamics.

   A.   performance management.

   B.   organizational behavior.

   C.   motivation.

   D.   workgroup analysis.

  

3) Which of the following statements about organizational behavior is NOT accurate?

 A.   organizational behavior seeks to improve the quality of work life.

   B.   organizational behavior has strong ties to the behavioral sciences and allied social sciences.

   C.   organizational behavior is divorced from the disciplines of political science and economics.

   D.   organizational behavior seeks to improve the performance of people, groups, and organizations.

  

4) The __________ culture includes the unique stories, ceremonies, and corporate rituals that make up the history of the firm or a group within it.

   A.   common

   B.   latent

   C.   shared

   D.   observable

  

5) Three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations are __________.

   A.   observable culture, shared values, and common assumptions.

   B.   implicit culture, shared values, and common experiences.

   C.   shared objectives, shared values, and shared mission.

   D.   explicit culture, implicit culture, and common assumptions.

  

6) In the context of the three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations, the level referred to as __________ can play a critical part in linking people together and can provide a powerful motivational mechanism for members of the culture.

   A.   implicit culture

   B.   shared values

   C.   observable culture

   D.   common culture

  

7) Scientific methods models are simplified views of reality that try to identify major factors and forces underlying real-world phenomenon.

   A.   True

   B.   False

  

8) According to the research conducted on the nature of managerial work, which of the following is false?

   A.   managers spend much time working alone.

   B.   managers work with many communication media.

   C.   managers work at fragmented and varied tasks.

 D.   managers work long hours.

  

9) Common forms of unintentional ethics lapses that individuals should guard against include all of the following EXCEPT:

   A.   favoring others who can benefit someone.

   B. promoting people who excel in their respective positions.

   C.   prejudice that derives from unconscious stereotypes and attitudes.

   D.   claiming too much personal credit for one’s performance contributions.

10) The difficulties with cross-cultural communication are perhaps most obvious with respect to __________.

   A.   religious differences

   B.   lifestyle differences

   C.   geographic differences

   D.   language differences

  

11) Which of the following statements about cross-cultural communication is NOT accurate?

   A.   gestures mean basically the same thing in various cultures of the world.

   B.   people must always exercise caution when communicating with people of different national cultures.

   C.   people must always exercise caution when communicating with people of different geographical or ethnic groupings within one country.

   D.   ethnocentrism can easily create communication problems among people of diverse backgrounds.

  

12) ________ is often accompanied by an unwillingness to understand alternative points of view and to take the values they represent seriously.

   A.   Kinesics

   B.   Self importance

   C.   Ethnocentrism

   D.   Proxemics

  

13) __________ typically work with a target completion date and disband once their purpose has been fulfilled.

   A.   Teams that study things.

   B.   Teams that review things.

   C.   Teams that recommend things.

   D.   Teams that run things.

  

14) All of these actions can be used to help create a high-performing team EXCEPT:

   A.   find ways to create early “success.”

   B.   having members spend time together.

   C.   giving negative feedback.

   D. setting the tone in the first team meeting.

  

15) Members of __________ must have good long-term working relationships with one another, solid operating systems, and the external support needed to achieve effectiveness over a sustained period of time.

   A.   teams that make or do things.

   B.   teams that review things.

   C.   teams that plan things.

   D.   teams that reengineer things.

  

16) Sheila is assertive and uncooperative in dealing with others during conflict. She goes against the wishes of others and uses her authority to gain compliance. Sheila uses which conflict management style?

   A.   accommodation

   B.   collaboration

   C.   compromise

   D.   competition

  

17) The conflict management style of __________involves being cooperative and unassertive. This style is characterized by letting the wishes of others rule, and smoothing over or overlooking differences to maintain harmony.

   A.   completion

   B.   accommodation

   C. collaboration

   D.   avoidance

  

18) The conflict management style of __________ involves being both cooperative and assertive. This style is characterized by trying to fully satisfy everyone’s concerns by working through differences and finding and solving problems so that everyone gains.

   A.   compromise

   B. accommodation

   C.   collaboration

   D.   avoidance

  

19) Process theories focus on _________________.

   A.   when a person will react to specific management styles.

   B.   why a person decides to behave in a certain way relative to available rewards and work opportunities.

   C.   who will be a more appropriate manager for an employee.

   D.   how a person will respond to types of leadership direction.

  

20) In the context of motivation, persistence refers to __________.

   A.   an individual’s choice when presented with a number of possible alternatives.

   B.   the amount of effort a person puts forth.

   C.   the different needs that an individual is trying to satisfy.

   D.   the length of time a person sticks with a given action.

  

21) Content theories attempt to explain work behaviors based on _______________.

   A.   perceptions on-the-job.

   B. the impact of individual ethics on business decisions.

   C.   pathways to need satisfaction and the influence of blocked needs.

   D.   the relationship between values and attitudes.

  

22) Even though homogeneous teams may struggle in the short run to resolve issues, they are also likely to develop enhanced performance potential once things are worked out.

   A.   True

   B.   False

  

23) Unlocking the full potential of teams and teamwork rich in diversity is one of the great advantages of high-performance organizations.

   A.   True

   B.   False

  

24) In general, chances for long-term group success are better when the group input foundations – tasks; goals, rewards, and resources; technology; membership diversity; and group size – are stronger.

   A.   True

   B.   False

25) Job burnout manifests itself as a loss of interest in and satisfaction with a job due to stressful working conditions.

   A.   True

   B.   False

  

26) Stress is a potential source of both anxiety and frustration, which can harm the body’s physiological and psychological well-being over time.

   A.   True

   B.   False

  

27) Employee assistance programs are designed to provide help to employees who are experiencing personal problems and the stress associated with them.

   A.   True

   B.   False

  

28) Which of the following statements about power and organizational politics is NOT correct?

   A. power and politics always exist in organizations.

   B.   managers derive their power from personal and organizational sources.

   C.   few instances exist where individual and organizational interests are compatible.

   D. power and politics represent the seamy side of management, since organizations are not democracies composed of individuals with equal influence.

  

29) Directives falling within the zone of indifference are __________.

   A.   obeyed.

   B.   rejected.

   C.   subjected to severe scrutiny.

   D.   subjected to slight scrutiny.

  

30) The essence of power is __________

   A.   control over the behavior of others.

   B.   a distinguished reputation.

   C.   having a Machiavellian personality.

   D.   personal desire.

  

31) High-performance teams have special characteristics that allow them to excel at teamwork and achieve special performance advantages.

   A.   True

   B.   False

  

32) A high-performing team can be created by communicating high-performance standards, having members spend time together, creating a sense of urgency, making sure members have the right skills, and rewarding high performance.

   A.   True

   B.   False

  

33) A high-performing team can be created by ensuring that latest information is kept to a minimum and by giving negative feedback.

   A.   True

   B.   False

   C.   [Answer Text]

  

34) All of the following statements about shared leaderships are correct EXCEPT:

   A.  leadership is restricted among a set of individuals who act in the role of a superior.

   B.   the influence process often involves peer or lateral influence.

   C.   the key distinction between shared leadership and traditional models of leadership is that the influence process involves more than just downward influence on subordinates by an appointed or elective e leader.

   D.   leadership today is not restricted simply to the vertical influence of a single individual but to other people as well.

  

35) Behavior strategies include all of the following EXCEPT:

   A.   self accomplishment

   B.   self goal setting

   C.   self reward

   D.   self observation

  

36) All of the following statements about full-range leadership theory are true EXCEPT:

   A.   FRLT is fast becoming the most commonly used leadership theory used by organizations.

   B.   the approach is built around revisions to Bass’ Multifactor Leadership Questionnaire.

   C.   some scholars consider the FRLT as an approach that could serve as a general leadership model that would trim or eliminate the numerous models now emphasized today.

   D.   the theory currently consists of nine factors including five transformational, three transactional one non-transactional factor.

37) The __________ and the __________ are important ways in which firms learn to co-evolve by altering their environments.

   A.   use of corporate philanthropy… influence of governments

   B.   influence of governments…development of alliances

   C.   management of networks…development of alliances

   D.   management of networks… influence of governments

  

38) Large systems tend to be susceptible to the __________, wherein managers fail to monitor their environments, recognize the important trends, or sense the need for change, and consequently their organizations slowly lose their competitive edge.

   A.   boiled frog phenomenon

   B.   immobility trap

   C.   proactive phenomenon

   D.   impatience trap

  

39) One of the foremost trends in management involves using information technology to streamline operations and reduce staff in order to lower costs and raise productivity.

   A.   True

   B. False

 

 

 

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MGT 307 Final Exam Guide 1

 

1) Organizational behavior is an interdisciplinary body of knowledge with strong ties to all of the following disciplines EXCEPT:

   A.   sociology.

   B.   anthropology.

   C.   psychology.

   D.   physics.

  

2) Which of the following statements about organizational behavior is NOT accurate?

   A.   organizational behavior seeks to improve the quality of work life.

   B.   organizational behavior has strong ties to the behavioral sciences and allied social sciences.

   C.   organizational behavior seeks to improve the performance of people, groups, and organizations.

   D.   organizational behavior is divorced from the disciplines of political science and economics.

  

3) __________ is a multidisciplinary field devoted to understanding individual and group behavior, interpersonal processes, and organizational dynamics.

   A.   performance management.

   B.   organizational behavior.

   C.   workgroup analysis.

   D.   motivation.

  

4) Organizations are encouraged to develop a dominant and coherent set of __________. Although every member may not agree with them, all members will know they are important.

 A.   common perceptions

   B.   observable attitudes

   C.   shared values

   D.   implicit needs

  

5) In the context of the three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations, the level referred to as __________ can play a critical part in linking people together and can provide a powerful motivational mechanism for members of the culture.

   A.   implicit culture

   B.   shared values

   C.   common culture

   D.   observable culture

  

6) Which of the following statements about the management of organizational culture is NOT correct?

   A.   corporate culture can be managed by using organizational development techniques to modify specific elements of the culture that address both external adaptation and internal integration.

   B.   good managers are able to help build resilient cultures in situations where the features of strong cultures are absent.

   C.   dictate rules from the top of the organization.

   D.   corporate culture can be managed by directly modifying the observable culture, shared values, and common assumptions that deal with issues of external adaptation.

  

7) According to the research conducted on the nature of managerial work, which of the following is false?

   A.   managers spend much time working alone.

   B.   managers work long hours.

   C.   managers work with many communication media.

   D.   managers work at fragmented and varied tasks.

  

8) Scientific methods models are simplified views of reality that try to identify major factors and forces underlying real-world phenomenon.

   A.   False

   B.   True

  

9) A person who is a __________ assumes a unique responsibility for work that is accomplished largely through the efforts of other people.

   A.   change agent

   B.   human resources director

   C.   manager or team leader

   D.   team member

10) Which of the following statements about the role of language in cross-cultural communication is NOT correct?

   A.   Australia, Canada and the United States have low-context cultures.

   B.   In low-context cultures, the message is rarely conveyed by the words someone uses, with greater emphasis on the “context” in which the words are spoken.

   C.   In high-context cultures, must of the message communicated must be inferred or interpreted from the context, which includes body language, the physical setting and past relationships.

   D.   Members of low-context cultures are very explicit in using the spoken and written word.

  

11) There are six sources of noise that are common to most interpersonal exchanges. These six sources are __________.

   A.   mixed messages, cultural differences, absence of feedback, proximity problems, absence of commitment to effective communication, and status effects.

   B.   cultural differences, physical distractions, semantic problems, mixed messages, absence of feedback, and status effects.

   C.   tangible distractions, people problems, inconsistent messages, cultural differences, absence of prior planning, and absence of feedback.

   D.   semantic problems, proximity problems, mixed messages, cultural differences, absence of planning, and status effects.

  

12) __________ are important to spot since non-verbals can add insight into what is really being said in face-to-face communication.

   A.   Perceptual distractions.

   B.   Mixed messages.

   C.   Merged messages.

   D.   Mangled messages.

13) __________ may exist at all levels of responsibility, from the individual work unit composed of a team leader and team members to the top management team composed of a CEO and other senior executives.

   A.   Teams that evaluate things.

   B.   Teams that run things.

   C.   Teams that review things.

   D.   Teams that make or do things.

  

14) A high-performing team can be created by doing the all of the following EXCEPT:

   A.   making sure members have the right skills.

   B.   creating a sense of urgency.

   C.   communicating high-performance standards.

   D.   ensuring that latest information is kept to a minimum.

  

15) __________ typically work with a target completion date and disband once their purpose has been fulfilled.

   A.   Teams that study things.

   B.   Teams that run things.

   C.   Teams that recommend things.

   D.   Teams that review things.

  

16) The conflict management style of __________ involves being both cooperative and assertive. This style is characterized by trying to fully satisfy everyone’s concerns by working through differences and finding and solving problems so that everyone gains.

   A.   compromise

   B.   accommodation

   C.   avoidance

   D.   collaboration

  

17) Suppose that a manager responds to a disagreement between subordinates by saying: “I don’t want to get in the middle of your personal disputes.” This manager is using which conflict management style?

   A.   accommodation

   B.   authoritative command

   C.   avoidance

   D.   unassertive

  

18) Ken is being cooperative but unassertive with his employees during a conflict situation. He tries to smooth over their differences but it only produces a false sense of harmony among them. Ken is using which conflict management style?

   A.   accommodation

   B.   compromise

   C.   avoidance

   D.   competition

  

19) Content theories attempt to explain work behaviors based on _______________.

   A.   perceptions on-the-job.

   B.   pathways to need satisfaction and the influence of blocked needs.

   C.   the relationship between values and attitudes.

   D.   the impact of individual ethics on business decisions.

  

20) Process theories focus on _________________.

   A.   when a person will react to specific management styles.

   B.   who will be a more appropriate manager for an employee.

   C.   how a person will respond to types of leadership direction.

   D.   why a person decides to behave in a certain way relative to available rewards and work opportunities.

  

21) In the context of motivation, level refers to __________.

   A.   the different needs that an individual is trying to satisfy.

   B.   the consequences of an individual’s behavior.

   C.   the length of time a person sticks with a given action.

   D.   the amount of effort a person puts forth.

  

22) Unlocking the full potential of teams and teamwork rich in diversity is one of the great advantages of high-performance organizations.

   A.   True

   B.   False

  

23) Which of the following statements about heterogeneous teams is not accurate?

   A.   research indicates that diversity among team members rarely creates performance difficulties early in the team’s life or stage of development.

   B.   unlocking the full potential of teams and teamwork rich in diversity is one of the great advantages of high-performance organizations.

   C.   heterogeneous teams have members who are diverse in demography, experiences, life styles, and cultures, among other variables.

   D.   diversity offers a rich pool of information, talent, and varied perspectives that can help improve team problem solving and increase creativity.

  

24) Diversity offers a rich pool of information, talent, and varied perspectives that can help improve team problem solving and increase creativity.

   A.   True

   B.   False

25) Stress is a state of tension experienced by individuals facing extraordinary demands, constraints, or opportunities.

   A.   True

   B.   False

  

26) Eustress has a negative impact on both attitudes and performance.

   A.   True

   B.   False

  

27) Wellness involves maintaining physical and mental health to better deal with stress when it occurs.

   A.   True

   B.   False

  

28) Which one of the following statements does NOT provide an accurate description of Stanley Milgram’s experiments?

   A.   the experimental results revealed that 35 percent of the subjects subjected the “learner” to the maximum level of shock and the remaining 65 percent refused to obey the experimenter at various intermediate points.

   B.   Milgram designed a series of experiments to determine the extent to which people obey the commands of an authority figure, even if they believe they are endangering the life of another person.

   C.   the basic conclusion of Milgram’s studies is there is a tendency for individuals to comply with and be obedient to authority.

   D.   experimental subjects were instructed to give what they believed were successively higher levels of electric shocks to people who missed the word pairs

  

29) Milgram designed experiments to determine the extent to which people __________.

   A.   are willing to use coercive power to gain influence.

   B.   learn from personal failures.

   C.   are willing to learn latest things as a means of gaining expert power.

   D.   obey the commands of an authority figure.

  

30) In today’s modern organization the base for power and politics rests on a system of authority. Which of the following statements about legitimacy regarding power is NOT correct?

   A.   in firms, the legitimacy of those at the top increasingly derives from their positions as representatives for various constituencies.

   B.   in U.S. firms, “higher authority” denotes those close to the top of the corporate pyramid.

   C.   senior managers may justify their lofty positions within organizations by separating themselves from stockholders.

   D.   in other societies, “higher authority” does not have a bureaucratic or organizational reference but consists of those with moral authority such as tribal chiefs, religious leaders, etc.

  

31) High-performance teams have strong core values that help guide their attitudes and behaviors in directions consistent with the team’s purpose.

   A.   True

   B.   False

  

32) A high-performing team can be created by finding ways to create early successes, establishing clear rules for team behavior, setting the tone in the first team meeting, and, as a leader, modeling expected behaviors.

   A.  True

   B.   False

  

33) A high-performing team can be created by communicating high-performance standards, having members spend time together, creating a sense of urgency, making sure members have the right skills, and rewarding high performance.

   A.   True

   B.   False

  

34) All of the following statements about full-range leadership theory are true EXCEPT:

   A.   FRLT is fast becoming the most commonly used leadership theory used by organizations.

   B.   the theory currently consists of nine factors including five transformational, three transactional one non-transactional factor.

   C.   some scholars consider the FRLT as an approach that could serve as a general leadership model that would trim or eliminate the numerous models now emphasized today.

   D.   the approach is built around revisions to Bass’ Multifactor Leadership Questionnaire.

  

35) All of the following statements about shared leaderships are correct EXCEPT:

   A.   leadership is restricted among a set of individuals who act in the role of a superior.

   B.   leadership today is not restricted simply to the vertical influence of a single individual but to other people as well.

   C.   the key distinction between shared leadership and traditional models of leadership is that the influence process involves more than just downward influence on subordinates by an appointed or elective e leader.

   D.   the influence process often involves peer or lateral influence.

  

36) Four of the CLT leadership dimensions are:

   A.   charismatic/value based, systematic, future orientation, performance driven.

   B.   self-protective, autonomous, humane-oriented, team-oriented.

   C.   implicit, explicit, specific, detailed.

   D.   autonomous, participative, driven, focus-oriented.

37) The obvious organizational design response to uncertainty and volatility is to opt for a more __________ form.

   A.   bureaucratic

   B.   mechanistic

   C.   centralized

   D.   organic

  

38) Large systems tend to be susceptible to the __________, wherein managers fail to monitor their environments, recognize the important trends, or sense the need for change, and consequently their organizations slowly lose their competitive edge.

   A.   boiled frog phenomenon

   B.   impatience trap

   C.   proactive phenomenon

   D.   immobility trap

  

39) The __________ and the __________ are important ways in which firms learn to co-evolve by altering their environments.

   A.   use of corporate philanthropy… influence of governments

   B.   influence of governments…development of alliances

   C.   management of networks…development of alliances

   D.   management of networks… influence of governments

 

 

 

 

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MGT 30 7 Week 1 Discussion Question 1 latest

 

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MGT 307 Week 1 Individual Assignment Organizational Behavior Terminology and Concepts Paper latest

 

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MGT 307 Week 2 Discussion Question 2 latestEW

 

MGT 307 Week 2 Learning Team Assignment Organizational Behavior Forces Discussionlatest

 

MGT 307 Week 3 Discussion Question 1 latest

 

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MGT 307 Week 3 Team Assignment DISC Platinum Rule Assessment and Workplace Observation Discussion latest

 

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MGT 307 Week 4 Team Assignment Evaluating Performance Through Motivation and Conflict Management Discussion latest

 

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UOP MGT 307 Final Exam Guide 6 latest

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MGT 307 Final Exam Guide 6

 

1. Organizational behavior is an interdisciplinary body of knowledge with strong ties to all of the following disciplines EXCEPT:

A.   Anthropology

B.   Psychology

C.   Physics

D.   Sociology

2. ________________ is a multidisciplinary field devoted to understanding individual and group behavior, interpersonal processes, and organizational dynamics:

A.   Workgroup analysis

B.   Organizational behavior

C.   Motivation

D.   Performance management

3. From its scientific heritage, organizational behavior has developed all of the following except:

A.   Contingency thinking

B.   An emphasis on finding the one best way to complete a task

C.   An interdisciplinary body of knowledge

D.   Use of scientific methods

4. Three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations are:

A.   Shared objectives, shared values and shared mission

B.   Implicit culture, shared values and common experiences

C.   Explicit culture, implicit culture and common assumptions

D.   Observable culture, shared values and common assumptions

5. Managers can modify the ____________ of culture, such as the language, stories, rites, rituals and sagas

A.   Visible aspects

B.   Vocal aspects

C.   Oral aspects

D.   Verbal aspects

6. The _________ culture includes the unique stories, ceremonies, and corporate rituals that make up the history of the firm or a group within it

A.   Shared

B.   Latent

C.   Observable

D.   Common

7. Common forms of unintentional ethics lapses that individuals should guard against include all of the following EXCEPT:

A.   Claiming too much personal credit for one’s performance contributions

B.   Prejudice that derives from unconscious stereotypes and attitudes

C.   Promoting people who excel in their respective positions

D.   Favoring others who can benefit someone

8. A person who is a __________ assumes a unique responsibility for work that is accomplished largely through the efforts of other people

A.   Human resources director

B.   Team member

C.   Manager or team leader

D.   Change agent

9. Scientific methods models are simplified views of reality that try to identify major factors and forces underlying real-world phenomenon

A.   True

B.   False

10. _______________ is often accompanied by an unwillingness to understand alternative points of view and to take the values they represent seriously

A.   Proxemics

B.   Ethnocentrism

C.   Self-importance

D.   Kinesics

11. Which of the following statements about the role of language in cross-cultural communication is NOT CORRECT?

A.   In low context cultures, the message is rarely conveyed by the words someone uses, with greater emphasis of the context in which the words are spoken

B.   Members of low context cultures are very explicit in using the spoken and written word

C.   In high context cultures, must of the message communicated must be inferred or interpreted from the context, which includes body language, the physical setting and past relationships

D.   Australia, Canada and the United States have low context cultures

12. _____________ are important to spot since non-verbal’s can add insight into what is really being said in face-to-face communication

A.   Mixed messages

B.   Mangled messages

C.   Merged messages

D.   Perceptual distractions

13. A high performing team can be created by doing the all of the following except:

A.   Creating a sense of urgency

B.   Communicating high-performance standards

C.    Ensuring that latest information is kept to a minimum

D.   Making sure members have the right skills

14. Each of the following is a characteristic of high-performance teams except:

A.   High-performance teams turn a general sense of purpose into specific performance objectives

B.   High-performance teams have strong core values

C.   Members of high-performance have the right mix of skills

D.   High-performance teams have members who focus on individual effort and excellence

15. _______________ typically work with a target completion date and disband once their purpose has been fulfilled

A.   Teams that review things

B.   Teams that run things

C.   Teams that study things

D.   Teams that recommend things

16. The conflict management style of _____________ involves being both cooperative and assertive. This style is characterized by trying to fully satisfy everyone’s concerns by working through differences and finding and solving problems so that everyone gains

A.   Collaboration

B.   Accommodation

C.   Compromise

D.   Avoidance

17. The conflict management style of _____________ involves being both cooperative and assertive. This style is characterized by letting the wishes of others rule, and smoothing over and overlooking differences to maintain harmony

A.   Collaboration

B.   Accommodation

C.   Completion

D.   Avoidance

18. Sheila is assertive and uncooperative in dealing with others during conflict. She goes against the wishes of others and uses her authority to gain compliance. Sheila uses which conflict management style?

A.   Compromise

B.   Collaboration

C.   Accommodation

D.   Competition

19. Which of the following is the correct order of Maslow’s need from the lowest (lower-order-need) to the highest (higher-order-need)?

A.   Physiological, social, safety, self-actualization, and esteem

B.   Social, esteem, self-actualization, physiological and safety

C.   Physiological, safety, social, esteem, and self-actualization

D.   Safety, social, physiological, esteem and self-actualization

20. Content theories attempt to explain work behaviors based on _____________?

A.   Pathways to need satisfaction and the influence of blocked needs

B.   The impact of individual ethics on business decisions

C.   Perceptions on-the-job

D.   The relationship between values and attitudes

21. In the context of motivation, persistence refers to _________

A.   The different needs that and individual is trying to satisfy.

B.   The amount of effort a person puts forth

C.   And individuals choice when presented with a number possible alternatives

D.   The length of time a person sticks with a given action

22. Unlocking the full potential of teams and teamwork rich in diversity is one of the great advantages of high-performance organizations

A.   True

B.   False

23. Diversity offers a rich pool of information, talent, and varied perspectives that can help improve team problem solving and increase creativity

A.   True

B.   False

24. In general, chances for long-term group success are better when the group input foundations – tasks; goals, rewards, and resources, technology, membership diversity and group size – are stronger.

A.   True

B.   False

25. Eustress has a negative impact on both attitudes and performance.

A.   True

B.  False

26. Employee assistance programs are designed to provide help to employees who are experiencing personal problems and the stress associated with them

A.   True

B.   False

27. Job burnout manifests itself as a loss of interest in and satisfaction with a job due to stressful working conditions

A.   True

B.   False

28. In today’s modern organization the base foe power and politics rests on a system of authority. Which of the following statements about legitimacy regarding power is not correct?

A.   Senior managers may justify their lofty positions within organizations by separating themselves from stockholders

B.     In other societies higher authority does not have a bureaucratic or organizational reference but consists of those with moral authority such as tribal chiefs, religious leaders

C.   In firms the legitimacy of those at the top increasingly derives from their positions are representatives for various constituencies

D.   In U.S. firms higher authority denotes those close to the top of the corporate pyramid

29. Milgram designed experiments to determine the extent to which people ______

A.   Are willing to learn latest things as a means of gaining expert power

B.   Obey the commands of an authority figure

C.   Are willing to use coercive power to gain influence

D.   Learn from personal failures

30. Which of the following statements about power and organizational politics is NOT correct?

A.   Few instances exist where individual and organizational interests are compatible

B.   Managers derive their power from personal and organizational sources

C.   Powers and politics always exist in organizations

D.   Power and politics represent the seamy side of management, since organizations are not democracies composed of individuals with equal influence

31. High-performance teams have special characteristics that allow them to excel at teamwork and achieve special performance advantages

A.   True

B.   False

32. High-performance teams have strong core values that help guide their attitudes and behaviors in directions consistent with the team’s purpose

A.   True

B.   False

33. A high-performing team can be created by finding ways to create early successes, establishing clear rules for team behavior, setting the tone in the first team meeting, and as a leader modeling expected behaviors.

A.   True

B.   False

34. Four of the CLT leadership dimensions are:

A.   Implicit, explicit, specific, detailed

B.   Autonomous, participative, driven, focus-oriented

C.   Charismatic/value based, systematic, future orientation, performance driven

D.   Self-protective, autonomous, humane-oriented, team-oriented

35. All of the following statements about shared leaderships are correct except:

A.   The influence process often involves peer or lateral influence

B.   Leadership is restricted among a set of individuals who act in the role of a superior

C.   Leadership today is not restricted simply to the vertical influence of a single individual but to other people as well

D.   The key distinction between shared leadership and traditional models of leadership is that the influence process involves more than just downward influence of subordinates by an appointed elective leader

36. All of the following statements about full-range leadership theory are true except:

A.   The approach is built around revisions to Bass’ Multifactor Leadership Questionnaire

B.   FRLT is fast becoming the most commonly used leadership theory used by organizations

C.   The theory currently consists of nine factors including five transformational, three transactional one non-transactional factor

D.   Some scholars consider the FRLT as an approach that could serve as a general leadership model that would trim or eliminate the numerous models now emphasized today.

37. One of the foremost trends in management involves using information technology to streamline operations and reduce staff in order to lower costs and raid productivity

A.   True

B.   False

38. One of the foremost trends in management involves using _____________ to streamline operations and reduce staff in order to lower costs and raid productivity

A.   Just-in time inventory control

B.   Information technology

C.   Reengineering techniques

D.   Total quality management

39. The obvious organizational design response to uncertainty and volatility is to opt for a more _________ form

A.   Organic

B.   Bureaucratic

C.   Mechanistic

D.   Centralized

 

UOP MGT 307 Final Exam Guide 7 latest

UOP MGT 307 Final Exam Guide 7 latest

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MGT 307 Final Exam Guide 7

 

1) Scientific methods models link _________________ – presumed causes, with _________________ – outcomes, of practical value and interest.

   A.   independent variables, dependent variables.

   B.   discovered variables, with undisclosed variables.

   C.   proven variables, non-proven variables.

   D.   specific variables, contingency variables.

  

2) From its scientific heritage, organizational behavior has developed all of the following EXCEPT:

   A.   an emphasis on finding the “one best way” to complete a task.

   B.   contingency thinking.

   C.   use of scientific methods.

   D.   an interdisciplinary body of knowledge.

  

3) Organizational behavior goals include all of the following EXCEPT:

   A.   improve the performance of people.

   B.   improve the level of organizational profits.

   C.   improve the quality of overall work life.

   D.   improve the performance of organizations.

  

4) Managers can modify the __________ of culture, such as the language, stories, rites, rituals, and sagas.

   A.   vocal aspects

   B.   oral aspects

   C.   verbal aspects

   D.   visible aspects

  

5) In the context of the three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations, the level referred to as __________ can play a critical part in linking people together and can provide a powerful motivational mechanism for members of the culture.

   A.   shared values

   B.   common culture

   C.   implicit culture

   D.   observable culture

  

6) Which of the following statements about the management of organizational culture is NOT correct?

   A.   good managers are able to help build resilient cultures in situations where the features of strong cultures are absent.

   B.   corporate culture can be managed by using organizational development techniques to modify specific elements of the culture that address both external adaptation and internal integration.

   C.   dictate rules from the top of the organization.

   D.   corporate culture can be managed by directly modifying the observable culture, shared values, and common assumptions that deal with issues of external adaptation.

 

7) When it comes to ethics and morality, scholar Archie B. Carroll draws a distinction between __________.

   A.   immoral managers, amoral managers and ethical managers

   B.   immoral managers, amoral managers and moral managers

   C.   amoral managers, ethical managers and moral managers

   D.   immoral managers, ethical managers and unethical managers

  

8) According to the research conducted on the nature of managerial work, which of the following is false?

   A.   managers work at fragmented and varied tasks.

   B.   managers spend much time working alone.

   C.   managers work with many communication media.

   D.   managers work long hours.

  

9) Common forms of unintentional ethics lapses that individuals should guard against include all of the following EXCEPT:

   A.   prejudice that derives from unconscious stereotypes and attitudes.

   B.   favoring others who can benefit someone.

   C.   promoting people who excel in their respective positions.

   D.   claiming too much personal credit for one’s performance contributions.

10) Which of the following statements about the role of language in cross-cultural communication is NOT correct?

   A.   Members of low-context cultures are very explicit in using the spoken and written word.

   B.   Australia, Canada and the United States have low-context cultures.

   C.   In high-context cultures, must of the message communicated must be inferred or interpreted from the context, which includes body language, the physical setting and past relationships.

   D.   In low-context cultures, the message is rarely conveyed by the words someone uses, with greater emphasis on the “context” in which the words are spoken.

  

11) The difficulties with cross-cultural communication are perhaps most obvious with respect to __________.

   A.   geographic differences

   B.   language differences

   C.   lifestyle differences

   D.   religious differences

  

12) __________ are important to spot since non-verbals can add insight into what is really being said in face-to-face communication.

   A.   Mangled messages.

   B.   Mixed messages.

   C.   Merged messages.

   D.   Perceptual distractions.

13) All of these actions can be used to help create a high-performing team EXCEPT:

   A.   giving negative feedback.

   B.   setting the tone in the first team meeting.

   C.   having members spend time together.

   D.   find ways to create early “success.”

  

14) __________ may exist at all levels of responsibility, from the individual work unit composed of a team leader and team members to the top management team composed of a CEO and other senior executives.

   A.   Teams that review things.

   B.   Teams that run things.

   C.   Teams that make or do things.

   D.   Teams that evaluate things.

  

15) A high-performing team can be created by doing the all of the following EXCEPT:

   A.   communicating high-performance standards.

   B.   creating a sense of urgency.

 C.   ensuring that latest information is kept to a minimum.

   D.   making sure members have the right skills.

  

16) Ken is being cooperative but unassertive with his employees during a conflict situation. He tries to smooth over their differences but it only produces a false sense of harmony among them. Ken is using which conflict management style?

   A.   avoidance

   B.   compromise

   C.   accommodation

   D.   competition

  

17) Suppose that a manager responds to a disagreement between subordinates by saying: “I don’t want to get in the middle of your personal disputes.” This manager is using which conflict management style?

   A.   avoidance

   B.   unassertive

   C.   accommodation

   D.   authoritative command

  

18) The conflict management style of __________involves being cooperative and unassertive. This style is characterized by letting the wishes of others rule, and smoothing over or overlooking differences to maintain harmony.

   A.   avoidance

   B.   collaboration

   C.   completion

   D.   accommodation

  

19) Content theories attempt to explain work behaviors based on _______________.

   A.   the relationship between values and attitudes.

   B.   pathways to need satisfaction and the influence of blocked needs.

   C.   perceptions on-the-job.

   D.   the impact of individual ethics on business decisions.

  

20) In the context of motivation, persistence refers to __________.

   A.   the length of time a person sticks with a given action.

   B.   the different needs that an individual is trying to satisfy.

   C.   an individual’s choice when presented with a number of possible alternatives.

   D.   the amount of effort a person puts forth.

  

21) In the context of motivation, level refers to __________.

   A.   the consequences of an individual’s behavior.

   B.   the amount of effort a person puts forth.

   C.   the length of time a person sticks with a given action.

   D.   the different needs that an individual is trying to satisfy.

  

22) In general, chances for long-term group success are better when the group input foundations – tasks; goals, rewards, and resources; technology; membership diversity; and group size – are stronger.

   A.   True

   B.   False

  

23) Research indicates that diversity among team members rarely creates performance difficulties early in the team’s life or stage of development.

   A.   True

   B.   False

  

24) Even though homogeneous teams may struggle in the short run to resolve issues, they are also likely to develop enhanced performance potential once things are worked out.

   A.   True

   B.   False

  

25) Eustress has a negative impact on both attitudes and performance.

   A.   True

   B.   False

  

26) Stress is a potential source of both anxiety and frustration, which can harm the body’s physiological and psychological well-being over time.

   A.   True

   B.   False

  

27) Employee assistance programs are designed to provide help to employees who are experiencing personal problems and the stress associated with them.

   A.   True

   B.   False

  

28) In today’s modern organization the base for power and politics rests on a system of authority. Which of the following statements about legitimacy regarding power is NOT correct?

   A.   senior managers may justify their lofty positions within organizations by separating themselves from stockholders.

   B.   in other societies, “higher authority” does not have a bureaucratic or organizational reference but consists of those with moral authority such as tribal chiefs, religious leaders, etc.

   C.   in U.S. firms, “higher authority” denotes those close to the top of the corporate pyramid.

   D.   in firms, the legitimacy of those at the top increasingly derives from their positions as representatives for various constituencies.

  

29) The essence of power is __________

   A.   having a Machiavellian personality.

   B.   a distinguished reputation.

   C.   personal desire.

   D.   control over the behavior of others.

  

30) Which one of the following statements does NOT provide an accurate description of Stanley Milgram’s experiments?

   A.   the basic conclusion of Milgram’s studies is there is a tendency for individuals to comply with and be obedient to authority.

   B.   experimental subjects were instructed to give what they believed were successively higher levels of electric shocks to people who missed the word pairs

   C. Milgram designed a series of experiments to determine the extent to which people obey the commands of an authority figure, even if they believe they are endangering the life of another person.

   D.   the experimental results revealed that 35 percent of the subjects subjected the “learner” to the maximum level of shock and the remaining 65 percent refused to obey the experimenter at various intermediate points.

  

31) A high-performing team can be created by communicating high-performance standards, having members spend time together, creating a sense of urgency, making sure members have the right skills, and rewarding high performance.

   A.   True

   B.   False

  

32) High-performance teams have strong core values that help guide their attitudes and behaviors in directions consistent with the team’s purpose.

   A.   True

   B.   False

  

33) High-performance teams have special characteristics that allow them to excel at teamwork and achieve special performance advantages.

   A.   True

   B.   False

  

34) All of the following statements about shared leaderships are correct EXCEPT:

   A.   the key distinction between shared leadership and traditional models of leadership is that the influence process involves more than just downward influence on subordinates by an appointed or elective e leader.

   B.   leadership today is not restricted simply to the vertical influence of a single individual but to other people as well.

   C.   the influence process often involves peer or lateral influence.

   D.   leadership is restricted among a set of individuals who act in the role of a superior.

  

35) Four of the CLT leadership dimensions are:

   A.   implicit, explicit, specific, detailed.

   B.   self-protective, autonomous, humane-oriented, team-oriented.

   C.   autonomous, participative, driven, focus-oriented.

   D.   charismatic/value based, systematic, future orientation, performance driven.

  

36) Behavior strategies include all of the following EXCEPT:

   A.   self reward

   B.   self observation

   C.   self goal setting

   D.   self accomplishment

  

37) Large systems tend to be susceptible to the __________, wherein managers fail to monitor their environments, recognize the important trends, or sense the need for change, and consequently their organizations slowly lose their competitive edge.

   A.   proactive phenomenon

   B.   impatience trap

   C.   immobility trap

   D.   boiled frog phenomenon

  

38) One of the foremost trends in management involves using __________ to streamline operations and reduce staff in order to lower costs and raise productivity.

   A.   total quality management

   B.   reengineering techniques

   C.   just-in time inventory control

   D.   information technology

  

39) The obvious organizational design response to uncertainty and volatility is to opt for a more __________ form.

   A.   centralized

   B.   bureaucratic

   C.   mechanistic

   D.   organic

 

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MGT 307 Week 1 Discussion Question 1 latest

 

How are organizations similar to living things? What is the organizational behavior model and its focus? Why is it important to understand organizational behavior?

 

ASH MGT 307 Week 4 Discussion Question 1 latest

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MGT 307 Week 4 Discussion Question 1 latest

 

How has technology affected organizational stress levels?

 

How can organizations reduce the time to market for products and services using e-business?

 

What responsibilities do organizations have for reducing employee stress?

 

Is it appropriate for an organization to consider employee stress when making assignments? Explain your answer.